SSC GD Mock Test – Constable Online Test Hindi/English

SSC GD mock test to prepare aspirants for the SSC constable online test for the exam day. Questions from all topics like General Intelligence and Reasoning, General Knowledge and General Awareness, and Elementary Mathematics are covered here. This practice exam will prepare you for the SSC constable GD CBT (computer-based test). The MCQ given in this paper will give a real-life simulation to prepare students to score good marks.

Check This: SSC GD Sample Papers

SSC GD Mock Test – Constable Online Test Hindi/English

The paper pattern for SSC GD is simple, There will be 4 sections and each section will contain 25 marks. Each question will carry 1 mark, this makes each section worth 25 marks and a total of 100 marks. Though we have not given any time limit in this mock test, in the exam candidates will only get 90 minutes or 1.30 hr to complete the online test. Make sure to review your mistakes and try to solve the complete test on your own.

We will update new test series here from time to time to help aspirants prepare better and score good marks in exams. So, make sure to bookmark this website if you do not want to miss any tests.

Part – A (General Intelligence and Reasoning)

Q1. Mira is the wife of Ketan. Chaitanya is the brother of Kapila, who is the wife of Sudeep. Rani is the mother of Ketan and the wife of Surendra. Chaitanya is the son of Rani. How is Surendra related to Sudeep?

  1. Son
  2. Brother
  3. Father
  4. Father-in-law
  5. Answer is: Father-in-law

Q2. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:

  1. Some medicines are injections.
  2. No injection is an equipment.

Conclusions:

  1. No equipment is an injection.
  2. No medicine is an equipment.
  1. Only conclusion II follows
  2.  Only conclusion I follows
  3. None of the conclusions follow
  4. Both the conclusions follow
  5. Answer is: Only conclusion I follows

Q3. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
1, 2, 2, 4, 8, 32, ?

  1. 64
  2. 40
  3. 16
  4. 256
  5. Answer is: 256

Q4. Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
40, 76, 44, 70, 49, 64, 55, 58, ?

  1. 62
  2. 80
  3. 65
  4. 71
  5. Answer is: 62

Q5. Select the letter from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.
G, K, O, S, W, A, ?

  1. J
  2. E
  3. G
  4. C
  5. Answer is: E

Q6. In a certain code language, ‘LEJ’ is written as ‘XJT’ and ‘FAME’ is written as ‘LBZJ’. How will ‘CABLE’ be written in that language?

  1. HBDZJ
  2. FBDXJ
  3. DBCXF
  4. XZYOJ
  5. Answer is: FBDXJ

Q7. Six persons, P, Q, R, S, T and U, are watching a movie sitting in a line, all facing the north. S is sitting between P and Q. T is at second place to the left of P. R is third to the left of Q. Q is sitting at one of the corners. Who is sitting at the other corner?

  1. S
  2. R
  3. T
  4. U
  5. Answer is: U

Q8. ‘Majority’ is related to ‘Minority’ in the same way as ‘Natural’ is related to ‘________’.

  1. Nature
  2. Fragrance
  3. Artificial
  4. Environment
  5. Answer is: Artificial

Q9. Select the option in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers in the given set.
(9, 79, 7)

  1. (15, 239, 14)
  2. (24, 635, 25)
  3. (20, 800, 40)
  4. (12, 135, 18)
  5. Answer is: (15, 239, 14)

Q10. Which two signs should be interchanged to make the given equation correct?
12 – 14 × 21 ÷ 7 + 28 = 193

  1. × and –
  2. + and ×
  3. + and ÷
  4. × and ÷
  5. Answer is: × and –

Q11. Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.
L _ _ R _ T _ M P _ S _ _ M P _ S T

  1. M, P, S, L, R, T, L, R
  2. L, R, T, S, P, P, S, T
  3. L, M, R, S, L, M, P, R
  4. R, P, L, M, S, L, S, T
  5. Answer is: M, P, S, L, R, T, L, R

Q12. Select the option that is related to the fourth number in the same way as the first number is related to the second number and the fifth number is related to the sixth number.
345 : 7 :: ? : 9 :: 66 : 4

  1. 514
  2. 731
  3. 445
  4. 651
  5. Answer is: 731

Q13. Four letter-clusters have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is different. Select the letter-cluster that is different.

  1. HLM
  2. KOP
  3. PRT
  4. DHI
  5. Answer is: PRT

Q14.  P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting anticlockwise around a circular table in the same sequence at equal distances between them. All are facing the centre of the table. S is facing the south. Then V and Q interchange their positions. In which direction is Q sitting now?

  1. South-east
  2. North-east
  3. South-west
  4. North
  5. Answer is: South-west

Q15.  An amount of ₹1,189 is to be divided among Rakesh, Mrinal and Sanjay in the ratio of 11 : 13 : 17, respectively. How much amount will Sanjay get more than Rakesh?

  1. ₹160
  2. ₹222
  3. ₹194
  4. ₹174
  5. Answer is: ₹174

Q16.  In a certain code language, ‘SOIL’ is coded as ‘38301824’. How will ‘DECIMAL’ be coded in that language?

  1. 81061826224
  2. 41060928224
  3. 85161626224
  4. 81062028226
  5. Answer is: 81061826224

 Q17.  Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
ORATOR : RQDSRQ :: TACKLE : ?

  1. WYFMOC
  2. WZFJOD
  3. VYFJPQ
  4. WZFLOF
  5. Answer is: WZFJOD

Q18.  In a certain code language, ‘MANGOES’ is written as ‘AEGMNOS’. How will ‘FRIEND’ be written in that language?

  1. DEFINR
  2. RDHFNI
  3. RFEIDN
  4. UIRVMW
  5. Answer is: DEFINR

Q19.  Select the correct option that indicates the arrangement of the given words in the order in which they appear in an English dictionary.

  1. Pegmatites
  2. Persistence
  3. Peroration
  4. Percodan
  5. Perfection
  1. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5
  2. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
  3. 1, 4, 5, 3, 2
  4. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
  5. Answer is: 1, 4, 5, 3, 2

Q20. Which of the following options is fifth to the right of the eighteenth letter from the right end in a forward alphabet series?

  1. N / N
  2. L / L
  3. M / M
  4. O / O
  5. Answer is: N/N

Part – B (General Knowledge and General Awareness)

Q21. A ‘duopoly’ is a type of oligopoly wherein ________ firms have dominant or exclusive control over a market.

  1. two
  2. five
  3. four
  4. three
  5. Answer is: two

Q22. Who among the following had laid the foundation of Lodi dynasty?

  1. Ibrahim Lodi
  2. Bahlul Lodi
  3. Sikandar Lodi
  4. Jalaluddin Lodi
  5. Answer is: Bahlul Lodi

 Q23. Which team became the first IPL team to win the IPL title for the fifth time in 2020?

  1. Delhi Capitals
  2. Chennai Super Kings
  3. Royal Challengers Bangalore
  4. Mumbai Indians
  5. Answer is: Mumbai Indians

Q24. According to Census 2011, which is the least populous state in India?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Sikkim
  3. Mizoram
  4. Goa
  5. Answer is: Sikkim

Q25. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

  1. The sun is an example of an illuminated object.
  2. A frying pan is an example of an opaque object.
  3. A wooden box is an example of a luminous object.
  4. An empty bottle made of clear glass is an example of a translucent object.
  5. Answer is: A frying pan is an example of an opaque object.

Q26. Which neighbouring country and India’s boundary was ratified by The Constitution (100th Amendment) Act, 2015?

  1. Bhutan
  2. Myanmar
  3. Bangladesh
  4. Nepal
  5. Answer is: Bangladesh

Q27. Which clause allows the government to breach its fiscal deficit target by 0.5% points at times of severe stress in the economy?

  1. FAR clause
  2. Guarantee clause
  3. DEAR clause
  4. Escape clause
  5. Answer is: Escape clause

Q28. Annie Zaidi was awarded the Nine Dots Prize for the year ______.

  1. 2020-21
  2. 2021-22
  3. 2019-20
  4. 2018-19
  5. Answer is: 2019-20

Q29. Which of the following states is the ‘Vinchhudo’ dance primarily associated with?

  1. Nagaland
  2. Madhya Pradesh
  3. Gujarat
  4. Goa
  5. Answer is:  Gujarat

Q30. The natural tendency of objects to resist a change in their state of rest or of uniform motion is known as _______.

  1. momentum
  2. acceleration
  3. force
  4. inertia
  5. Answer is: inertia

Q31. When government is lowering taxes and raising government spending, which kind of fiscal policy is it following?

  1. Neutral Fiscal Policy
  2. Contractional Fiscal Policy
  3. Both, Contractional Fiscal Policy and Expansionary Fiscal Policy
  4. Expansionary Fiscal Policy
  5. Answer is: Expansionary Fiscal Policy

Q32. Kamala Harris, the first female Vice-President of the US, has family roots in the Indian state of:

  1. Karnataka
  2. Kerala
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Tamil Nadu
  5. Answer is: Tamil Nadu

 Q33. In which Indian city is one of the country’s ancient lakes, the ‘Lendiya Talab’ located?

  1. Chennai
  2. Bhopal
  3. Lucknow
  4. Varanasi
  5. Answer is: Bhopal

Q34. Who among the following players won the Women’s Singles event at the French Open 2020?

  1. Katie Boulter
  2. Elina Svitolina
  3. Iga Swiatek
  4. Sofia Kenin
  5. Answer is: Iga Swiatek

Q35. Which of the following conspiracies was linked to the train robbery in 1925?

  1. Kakorin Conspiracy
  2. Delhi Conspiracy
  3. Peshawar Conspiracy
  4. Muzaffarpur Conspiracy
  5. Answer is: Kakorin Conspiracy

Q36. The Fundamental Principles of the Olympic Charter are based on a document written by:

  1. Leo Tolstoy
  2. Aristotle
  3. Muhammad Ali
  4. Pierre de Coubertin
  5. Answer is: Pierre de Coubertin

Q37. Deepa Malik is India’s first female para-athlete to win a medal at the ______ Rio Paralympics.

  1. 2014
  2. 2018
  3. 2016
  4. 2015
  5. Answer is: 2016

Q38. In which year did Subhash Chandra Bose escape from under British surveillance?

  1. 1941
  2. 1939
  3. 1932
  4. 1945
  5. Answer is: 1941

Q39. Which is the first month of the Indian national calendar year beginning on 22 March, which is the day after the spring equinox?

  1. Ashwin
  2. Kartika
  3. Phalguna
  4. Chaitra
  5. Answer is: Chaitra

Q40. Which of the following is a chemical element with the atomic number 10?

  1. Helium
  2. Neon
  3. Lithium
  4. Carbon
  5. Answer is: Neon

Part – C (Elementary Mathematics)

Q41. In a toy factory, a worker can assemble a  toy in 5 minutes. If from 10:30 a.m to 12:30 p.m. 1248 toys are to be assembled, then how many workers should be employed ?

  1. 52
  2. 50
  3. 78
  4. 26
  5. Answer is: 52

Q42. A dealer sold an article at loss of 8%. Had he sold it for ₹72 more, he would have gained 16%. The cost price of the article was:

  1. ₹350
  2. ₹300
  3. ₹450
  4. ₹400
  5. Answer is: ₹300

Q43.  If the simple interest on a certain sum of money for 15 months at 9.6% per annum exceeds the simple interest on the same sum for 8 months at 11.4% by ₹1320 then the sum is:

  1. ₹30000
  2. ₹32000
  3. ₹28000
  4. ₹25000
  5. Answer is: ₹32000

Q44. Two students A and B appeared in a class test. B scored 40% of the sum total of their marks, which is 7 less than the marks of A. How many marks did B score ?

  1. 5
  2. 14
  3. 12
  4. 21
  5. Answer is: 14

Q45. The LCM and HCF of two numbers are 25 and 150 respectively. If one of the numbers is 50, then what is the sum of the two numbers?

  1. 100
  2. 175
  3. 75
  4. 125
  5. Answer is: 125

Q46. The price of a commodity has increased by 20%. The Gupta family reframed their monthly budget and plans to spend 8% more money on that particular commodity. By what percentage should they reduce its consumption so as to manage with the increased amount of money?

  1. 12
  2. 8
  3. 14
  4. 10
  5. Answer is: 10

Q47. If 62% of a number is equal to three-fifth of another number, then what is the ratio of the first number to the second number?

  1. 30:31
  2. 31:30
  3. 31:20
  4. 20:31
  5. Answer is: 30:31

Q48. The average of four 3-digit numbers 34x,197,6×4 and 348 is 386. What is the average of (3x + 1) and (7x – 2) ?

  1. 23
  2. 26
  3. 5
  4. 10
  5. Answer is: 5

Q49. A motorist travel a certain distance at an average speed of 48km/h and returns at an average speed of 32km/h. What is the average speed (in km/h) for the whole journey?

  1. 38
  2. 4
  3. 39.8
  4. 40
  5. Answer is: 4

Q50. Simplify the following expression.
7 + 35 / 7 * 5 of 6 – 1

  1. 156
  2. 132
  3. 12
  4. 179
  5. Answer is: 156

Q51. If the ratio of the base radii of a cylinder and a cone is 1:2 and of their heights is 2:1, then what is the ratio of the volume of the cylinder to that of the cone ?

  1. 2:3
  2. 1:1
  3. 2:1
  4. 3:2
  5. Answer is: 3:2

Q52. The LCM of two numbers is 45 times their HCF, and the sum of the LCM and HCF is 1518. If one of the numbers is divided by 16, the quotient is 18 and the remainder is 9. What is the other number?

  1. 495
  2. 363
  3. 330
  4. 165
  5. Answer is: 165

Q53. A shopkeeper buys a gadget for ₹1,125 after getting 25% discount. If he sells it by allowing 10% discount on the marked price, then how much does he gain?

  1. ₹150
  2. ₹225
  3. ₹325
  4. ₹250
  5. Answer is: ₹225

Q54. A man sells two mobile phones for ₹6,000 each, gaining 25% on one and losing 25% on the other. What is his gain or loss precent in whole transaction (upto two decimal places)?

  1. Profit, 6.67
  2. Loss, 6.67
  3. Loss, 6.25
  4. Profit, 6.25
  5. Answer is: Loss, 6.25

Q55. A certain sum amounts to ₹12,236 in  years at 8.8% p.a. at simple interest. What will be the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate in  years ?

  1. 3,624
  2. 3,542
  3. 3,484
  4. 3,524
  5. Answer is: 3,542

Q56. A sum of money becomes double in 5 years at compound interest rate. The same sum of money will be 4 times of itself in:

  1. 12years
  2. 10 years
  3. 8 years
  4. 15 years
  5. Answer is: 10 years

Q57. A retailer buys a tracksuit for ₹850. His overhead expenses are ₹50. If he sells the tracksuit for ₹1,170, then what is his profit percentage?

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 22
  4. 30
  5. Answer is: 30

Q58.  6 men and 8 women can complete as much work in a given time as 3 men and 13 women. If a man can complete a work in 12 days, then in how many days will 4 women be able to complete the same work ?

  1. 5 days
  2. 8 days
  3. 4 days
  4. 20 days
  5. Answer is: 5 days

Q59. Find the next number in the series.
5, 4, 9, 26, 105, ?

  1. 522
  2. 524 
  3. 525
  4. 523
  5. Answer is: 524

Q60.  A watch dealer sells watches at Rs.45,220/- after two successive discounts of 15% and 20% respectively. What is the marked price? (In Rs.)

  1. 66200
  2. 66300
  3.  66400
  4. 66500
  5. Answer is: 66500

Part – D (English)

Q61. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
I don’t have some money at all.

  1. few
  2. No substitution required
  3. any
  4. little Question
  5. Answer is: any

Q62. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Precarious

  1. Safe
  2. Insecure
  3. Stable
  4. Strange
  5. Answer is: Insecure

Q63. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
I will / be in school / for / 7 a.m. to 2 p.m.

  1. be in school
  2. 7 a.m. to 2 p.m.
  3. for
  4. I will
  5. Answer is: for

Q64. Select the INCORRECTLY spelt word.

  1. Hover
  2. Dreary
  3. Monark
  4. Adorn
  5. Answer is: Monark

 Q65. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
I have been worked hard to finish this project.

  1. No substitution required
  2. have been working
  3. working
  4. had been worked
  5. Answer is: have been working

Q66. Select the correctly spelt word.

  1. Harbore
  2. Glossery
  3. Premire
  4. Orchestra
  5. Answer is: Orchestra

Q67. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Please ______ my subscription of the children’s magazine.

  1. settle
  2. renew
  3. finish
  4. regain
  5. Answer is: renew

Q68. The following sentence has been divided into parts. One of them may contain an error. Select the part that contains the error from the given options. If you don’t find any error, select ‘No error’ as your answer.
Jyoti is one of / the best police officer / in this town.

  1. No error
  2. the best police officer
  3. in this town
  4. Jyoti is one of
  5. Answer is: the best police officer

Q69. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Obscure

  1. Vague
  2. Dim
  3. Clear
  4. Doubtful
  5. Answer is: Clear

Q70. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.
Spick and span

  1. Safe and secure
  2. Over and over again
  3. Very neat and clean
  4. Far from each other
  5. Answer is: Very neat and clean

Q71. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A remedy for all diseases

  1. Medicine
  2. Treatment
  3. Panacea
  4. Diagnosis
  5. Answer is: Panacea

Q72. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The company is going to ______ the North Sea for oil.

  1. search
  2. tour
  3. explore
  4. traverse
  5. Answer is: explore

Q73. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the given word.
Reverence

  1. Respect
  2. Admiration
  3. Awe
  4. Contempt
  5. Answer is: Contempt

Q74. Select the most appropriate option that can substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select ‘No substitution required’.
During foggy weather, flights are often cancelled, isn’t it?

  1. do they
  2. aren’t they
  3. No substitution required
  4. haven’t they
  5. Answer is: aren’t they

Q75. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The police ______ the protestors from entering the parliament.

  1. persuaded
  2. presumed
  3. protected
  4. prevented
  5. Answer is: prevented

Q76. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
A place where money is coined

  1. Store
  2. Mint
  3. Factory
  4. Industry
  5. Answer is: Mint

Q77. The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
The poet / and the author / is awarded / by the President.

  1. by the President
  2. The poet
  3. and the author
  4. is awarded
  5. Answer is: is awarded

Q78. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Noble

  1. Dignified
  2. Poor
  3. Ordinary
  4. Normal
  5. Answer is: Dignified

Q79. Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.
The sound made by bees

  1. Buzz
  2. Hiss
  3. Moo
  4. Coo
  5. Answer is: Buzz

Q80. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.|
At a snail’s pace

  1. Quickly
  2. Very slowly
  3. Peacefully
  4. Carelessly
  5. Answer is: Very slowly

Part – D (Hindi)

Q81. दिये गये वाक्यांश के लिए एक शब्द दीजिये।
व्यर्थ खर्च करने वाला

  1. अतिव्ययी
  2. अल्पव्ययी
  3. अपव्ययी
  4. मितव्ययी
  5. Answer is: अपव्ययी

Q82. दिये गये वाक्यांश के लिए एक सार्थक शब्द दीजिए।
कविता रचनेवाली स्त्री

  1. कवयित्री
  2. कवियत्री
  3. कवियित्री
  4. विदुषी
  5. Answer is: कवयित्री

Q83. दिए गए शब्द के समानार्थी शब्द का चयन करें।
बेटी

  1. वनिता
  2. अंगना
  3. वासा
  4. दुहिता
  5. Answer is: दुहिता

Q84. निम्नलिखित  में से शुद्ध वर्तनी वाला शब्द कौन सा है?

  1. कोतुहल
  2. कौतुहल
  3. कौतूहल
  4. कोतूहल
  5. Answer is: कौतूहल

Q85. रिक्त स्थान की पूर्तिके लिए सबसे उपयुक्त शब्द का चयन कीजिए।
मुझे दुर्घटना की ______ है।

  1. अभिलाषा
  2. आशा
  3. इच्छा
  4. आशंका
  5. Answer is: आशंका

Q86. उस विकल्प का चयन करें जो निम्न मुहावरे का अर्थ व्यक्त करता है।
कान भरना

  1. बदनाम करना
  2. सावधान करना
  3. चुगली करना
  4. प्रभावित करना
  5. Answer is: चुगली करना

Q87. ‘नीरुजता’ शब्द का विलोम शब्द कौनसा है?

  1. नीरस
  2. निर्धारित
  3. रुग्णता
  4. निर्दोष
  5. Answer is: रुग्णता

Q88. दिए गए शब्द का समानार्थी शब्द बताइए-
किनारा

  1. केतु
  2. कूल
  3. केली
  4. कुल
  5. Answer is: कूल

Q89. मोह शब्द कोनसा विशेषण है ?

  1. सार्वनामिक
  2. गुणवाचक
  3. संख्यावाचक
  4. परिमाणवाचक
  5. Answer is: गुणवाचक

Q90. ‘रानी केतकी की कहानी’ किसकी प्रसिद्ध कहानी है ?

  1. माधव सप्रे
  2. लल्लूलाल
  3. इंशा अल्ला खां
  4. सदासुलाल
  5. Answer is: इंशा अल्ला खां

Q91. “अवधि शिला का उस पर, था गुरु भार |  तिल तिल काट रही थी , हग जल धार | | ” में कोनसा छन्द है ?

  1. तोटक
  2. बरवै
  3. रोला
  4. वंशस्थ
  5. Answer is: बरवै

Q92. “आगे नदियाँ पड़ी अपार , घोड़ा कैसे उतरे पार |

राणा ने देखा इस पार, तब तक चेतक था उस पार |”
दी गयी पंक्तियों मे कोनसा अलंकार है ?

  1. अतिश्योक्ति
  2. उपमा
  3. अनुप्रास
  4. उत्प्रेक्षा
  5. Answer is: अतिश्योक्ति

Q93.  निम्नलिखित में से कोनसा शब्द स्त्रीलिंग है ?

  1. आय
  2. विवाद
  3. सार
  4. रूप
  5. Answer is: आय

Q94. कुंडलिया छंद में चरणो की संख्या कितनी होती है ?

  1. चार
  2. दो
  3. आठ
  4. छह
  5. Answer is: छह

Q95. इनमे से ‘नाक का बाल होना’ मुहावरे  का क्या अर्थ है ?

  1. हमेशा परेशान रहना
  2. क्रोध का कारण होना
  3. बहुत परेशान करना
  4. अधिक प्यारा होना
  5. Answer is: अधिक प्यारा होना

Q96.  ‘घासफूस’ मे कोनसा समास है ?

  1. अव्ययीभाव समास
  2. बहुव्रीहि समास
  3. द्वंद्व समास
  4. द्विगु समास
  5. Answer is: द्वंद्व समास

Q97. ‘राम किताब पढ़ता है |’ इस वाक्य में वाच्य का कोनसा प्रकार है ?

  1. कर्म वाच्य
  2. भाव वाच्य
  3. कृत्य वाच्य
  4. इनमे से कोई नहीं
  5. Answer is: कृत्य वाच्य

Q98.  ‘वे आम के पेड़ है |’ इस वाक्य मैं अधोरेखित शब्द का सर्वनाम का प्रकार लिखिए |

  1. निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम
  2. प्रश्नवाचक सर्वनाम
  3. संबंधवाचक सर्वनाम
  4. निजवाचक सर्वनाम
  5. Answer is: निश्चयवाचक सर्वनाम

Q99. “बिल्ली के गले मे घंटी बांधना” के अर्थ का उचित विकल्प चुनिए |

  1. बिल्ली को सजाना
  2. घंटी सुनने के मजे लेना
  3. अपने को संकट मे डालना
  4. बिल्ली को क्रोधित करना
  5. Answer is: अपने को संकट मे डालना

Q100. ‘दसानन  मे कोनसा समास है ?

  1. कर्मधारय
  2. बहुब्रीहि
  3. तत्पुरुष
  4. द्रिगु
  5. Answer is: बहुब्रीहि

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