SSC MTS Mock Test – Online test Free

The level of questions asked in the SSC MTS mock test is easier than other SSC exams, but without proper preparation, they will look very difficult. Therefore we have created this Online test for those who are preparing for the SSC MTS exam. The questions from English, logical reasoning, numerical ability or math, GK or general awareness are given in this test.

SSC MTS Mock Test – English

Q1. Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word.
Clandestine

  1. Blatant
  2. Ornate
  3. Open
  4. Undercover
  5. Answer is: Undercover

Q2. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement. Many accidents at the factory are caused of workers who don’t read warning signs.

  1. are caused because of
  2. is the cause of
  3. is caused by
  4. No Improvement
  5. Amswer is: are caused because of

Q3. Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence. If there is no need to substitute it, select No Improvement.
The wound on her hand is now heal completely.

  1. has now healing
  2. No Improvement
  3. is now healed
  4. is healing now
  5. Answer is: is now healed

Q4. Select the most appropriate meaning of the given idiom.

Back on one’s feet

  1. To support the losing side
  2. Relive previous moments
  3. Well or successful again
  4. Forced to begin something again
  5. Answer is: Well or successful again

Q5.  The following sentence has been split into four segments. Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.

If you plant a seed, / you will be noticed / that it takes some / time to grow.

  1. that it takes some
  2. If you plant a seed
  3. you will be noticed
  4. time to grow
  5. Answer is: you will be noticed

Q6. In the following question, out of the given four alternatives, select the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.

Birds of the same feather

  1. People with a generous heart
  2. To get into trouble together
  3. To be in a totally helpless condition
  4. People with similar character
  5. Answer is: People with similar character

Q7. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
The students are in great ______ of their teachers.

  1. Praise
  2. awe
  3. respect
  4. guste
  5. Answer is: awe

Q8. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Many people like playing cricket, but _____________ my opinion, it is too chaotic.

  1. in
  2. from
  3. for
  4. with
  5. Answer is: in

Q9. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

The origin of ice-cream dates back ______ nearly half-a-century.

  1. In
  2. At
  3. From
  4. Into
  5. Answer is: in

Q10. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.
Sarthak ______ everything that a leader should be.

  1. Epitomizes
  2. adores
  3. worships
  4. Clones
  5. Answer is: Epitomizes

Comprehension: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank.(Q11-15)
Mr. Oliver was taking a shortcut 1.____ the pine forest which was making sad, 2.____ sounds because of strong winds. He 3.____ a lonely boy sitting on a rock. 4.____ boy was weeping soundlessly. There seemed to be 5.____ terribly wrong with the boy.

Q11. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1.

  1. through
  2. by
  3. along
  4. of
  5. Answer is: through

Q12. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 5.

  1. anything
  2. nothing
  3. everything
  4. something
  5. Answer is: something

Q13. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 3.

  1. recorded
  2. noticed
  3. pointed
  4. Remarked
  5. Answer is: noticed

Q14. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 2.

  1. Awesome
  2. eerie
  3. banging
  4. aloud
  5. Answer is: eerie

Q15. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 4.

  1. One
  2. Each
  3. A
  4. The
  5. Answer is: The

MTS Mock Test – Reasoning

Q16. Five boys, G, K, P, R and T, are sitting around a circular table facing towards the centre (not necessarily in the same order). R is third to the left of K. P and G are the immediate neighbours of K. T is to the immediate left of P. Who is sitting second to the right of P?

  1. G
  2. K
  3. T
  4. R
  5. Answer is: G

Q17. Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.

Water : Drink :: Bread : ?

  1. Hard
  2. Eat
  3. Milk
  4. White
  5. Answer is: Eat

Q18. Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.

325 : 18 :: 226 : ?

  1. 14
  2. 17
  3. 15
  4. 16
  5. Answer is: 15

Q19. In a certain code language, ‘CAP’ is written as ‘20’ and ‘ROM’ is written as ‘46’. What will be the code for ‘RUB’ in that code language?

  1. 47
  2. 41
  3. 53
  4. 51
  5. Answer is: 41

Q20. Select the option that is related to the fifth term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term and the fourth term is related to the third term.

THROW : XPSIU :: QUICK : LDJVR :: LIGHT : ?

  1. UIHLM
  2. UIHJM
  3. UIHKM
  4. UIHJN
  5. Answer is: UIHJM

Q21. Select the letter-cluster that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

GOAL, IMCJ, KKEH, MIGF, ?

  1. OHID
  2. OGJD
  3. OGIC
  4. OGID
  5. Answer is: OGID

Q22. In a certain code language, ‘grapes are multi red’ is coded as ‘8 6 4 3’, ‘red people eat mango’ is coded as ‘7 4 5 2’ and ‘mango multi apple’ is coded as ‘3 5 0’. How will ‘red apple’ be coded in that language?

  1. 8 5
  2. 4 0
  3. 5 0
  4. 8 6
  5. Answer is: 4 0

Q23. Seven girls A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing opposite the centre (not necessarily in the same order). E is second to the right of A. C is the immediate neighbour of E. D is third to the right of C. B is the immediate neighbour of E and A. F is fourth to the right of A. Which of the following statements is correct? I. D is next to the right of G. II. A is third to the left of B.

  1. Only II
  2. Both I and II
  3. Only I
  4. Neither I nor II
  5. Answer is: Only I

Q24. Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements:

No 90s are 80s.

Some 90s are 40s.

All 80s are 70s.

Conclusions:

I. All 80s being 40s is a possibility.

II. Some 70s are not 90s.

  1. Only conclusion II follows.
  2. Only conclusion I follows.
  3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
  4. Neither conclusion I nor II follow.
  5. Answer is: Both conclusions I and II follow

Q25. After interchanging the given two signs and two numbers, what will be the value of the following expression?

÷ and +; 7 and 15 5 ÷ 35 + 15 × 6 – 7 = ?

  1. 40
  2. 30
  3. 20
  4. 10
  5. Answer is: 20

MTS Online Test – Numerical Ability

Q26. If A : B is 2 : 3 and B – A =28, then what is the value of B + A ?

  1. 120
  2. 150
  3. 140
  4. 130
  5. Answer is: 140

Q27. An article is sold for ₹6500 so as to earn a profit of 4%. A second article whose price is  ₹3750, is sold a loss of 4%. What is the overall gain or loss percent in the whole transaction ?

  1. Gain 4%
  2. Loss 1%
  3. Loss 4%
  4. Gain 1%
  5. Answer is: Gain 4%

Q28.What is the largest two digit number which when divided by 6 and 5 leaves remainder 1 in each case ?

  1. 61
  2. 97
  3. 91
  4. 93
  5. Answer is: 91

Q29. Find the average of the first fifteen multiples of 11.

  1. 55
  2. 35.5
  3. 77
  4. 88
  5. Answer is: 88

Q30. Marked price and cost price of an article are in ratio 5 : 4. If the profit earned by selling the article is 12.5%, then what is the discount percentage ?

  1. 12.5
  2. 15
  3. 8
  4. 10
  5. Answer is: 10

Q31. What is the average of all the natural numbers from 49 to 125 ?

  1. 85
  2. 87
  3. 88
  4. 86
  5. Answer is: 87

Q32. A and B together can do a piece of work in 24 days. A alone can do this work in 40 days. In how many days can B alone do this work ?

  1. 40 days
  2. 56 days
  3. 60 days
  4. 16 days
  5. Answer is: 60 days

Q33. A invested amount of ₹12,000 in a fixed deposit scheme for 2 years at an interest rate of 5% per annum. How much amount will A get on maturity of the fixed deposit ?

  1. ₹13,230
  2. ₹11,280
  3. ₹12,450
  4. ₹14,560
  5. Answer is: ₹13,230

Q34. A train travels for 2 hours at a speed of 6m/sec. What is the distance covered by the train in the mentioned duration of time ?

  1. 42.8 km
  2. 36.4 km
  3. 46.6 km
  4. 43.2 km
  5. Answer is: 43.2 km

Q35. The surface areas of two spheres are in the ratio of 64 : 81. Find the ratio of their volumes, in the order given.

  1. 512 : 729
  2. 64 : 729
  3. 8 : 81
  4. 4 : 9
  5. Answer is: 512 : 729

SSC MTS Online Test – General Awareness

Q36. Who is the author of the book ‘Fearless Governance’?

  1. Kiran Bedi
  2. Jaswant Singh
  3. Arun Shourie
  4. MJ Akbar
  5. Answer is: Kiran Bedi

Q37. Which scheme of Rajasthan launched in 2022 provides the rural girls of the state with scholarship schemes?

  1. Udaan
  2. STARS Project
  3. SAMARTH
  4. Vision 2035
  5. Answer is: Udaan

Q38. As of April 2022, what is the capital of India’s neighbouring country Myanmar?

  1. Dhaka
  2. Naypyidaw
  3. Thimphu
  4. Beijing
  5. Answer is: Naypyidaw

Q39. 4 Who among the following was the first Indian to win an individual gold medal at the Olympic Games?

  1. Abhinav Bindra
  2. Saina Nehwal
  3. Anju Sajwan
  4. Bobby George
  5. Answer is: Abhinav Bindra

Q40. 24 Which organelle is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

  1. Ribosome
  2. Golgi bodies
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Lysosome
  5. Answer is: Ribosome

Q41. ‘Kathakali’ is a classical dance form of which Indian state?

  1. Manipur
  2. Kerala
  3. Karnataka
  4. Assam
  5. Answer is: Kerala

Q42. Cobalt therapy is the medical use of ____________ rays from the radioisotope cobalt60 to treat conditions such as cancer.

  1. Alpha
  2. beta
  3. gamma
  4. Ultraviolet
  5. Answer is: Gamma

Q43. Who has the power to abolish or create legislative council in the state?

  1. Parliament
  2. High court of the concerned state
  3. President
  4. Chief minister of the concerned state
  5. Answer is: Parliament

Q44. When was the Indian National Flag adopted?

  1. 12 July, 1947
  2. 12 August, 1947
  3. 22 August, 1947
  4. 22 July, 1947
  5. Answer is: 22 July, 1947

Q45. What is Parsi New year known as?

  1. Ugadi
  2. Navroz
  3. Pateti
  4. Puthandu
  5. Answer is: Navroz

Q46. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?

  1. 14
  2. 12
  3. 11
  4. 13
  5. Answer is: 12

Q47. Which of the following ministers is named in the ‘100 Most Influential in UK-India Relations: Celebrating Women’ list?

  1. Smriti Irani
  2. Nirmala Sitharaman
  3. Sushma Swaraj
  4. Maneka Gandhi
  5. Answer is: Nirmala Sitharaman

Q48. Who was the fifth guru in Sikhism?

  1. Guru Angad
  2. Guru Ram Das
  3. Guru Arjan Dev
  4. Guru Har Rai
  5. Answer is: Guru Arjan Dev

Q49. Which of the following quantities have its SI unit named after Blaise Pascal?

  1. Energy
  2. Pressure
  3. Work
  4. Power
  5. Answer is: Pressure

Q50. Which of the following element found in water is responsible for cancer?

  1. Arsenic
  2. Iron
  3. Chlorine
  4. Fluorine
  5. Answer is: Arsenic

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *