NEET Mock Test – Free Online Test 2024

In this NEET mock test series, students who are preparing for this exam will get the latest free online test for the year 2024. Questions from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (botany, Zoology) are involved in this test. These questions are hand-picked by experts.

Physics Questions For NEET Mock Test

Q1. Match List-I with List-II

List – I (Electromagnetic  waves) List – II (Wavelength)
(a) AM radio waves (i) 10-10 m
(b) Microwaves (ii) 102 m
(c) Infrared radiations (iii) 10-2 m
(d) X-rays (iv) 10-4 m

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

  1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (iii), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (ii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)
  3. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)
  5. Answer is :(a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (i)

Q2. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a plane boundary. The speed of light in those media are 1.5 × 108 m/s and 2.0 × 108 m/s, respectively. The critical angle for a ray of light
for these two media is

  1. sin–1 (0.500)
  2. sin–1 (0.750)
  3. tan–1 (0.500)
  4. tan–1 (0.750)
  5. Answer is: sin–1 (0.750)

Q3. A capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF is charged fully by 100 V battery B as shown in figure

(a). Then it is disconnected from the battery and connected to another uncharged capacitor of capacitance C = 900 pF as shown in figure

(b). The electrostatic energy stored by the system (b) is

  1.  4.5 × 10–6 J
  2.  3.5 × 10–6 J
  3.  2.5 × 10–6 J
  4.  1 .5 × 10–6 J
  5. Answer is: 2.5 × 10–6 J

Q4. Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The stretching of a spring is determined by the shear modulus of the material of the spring.

Reason (R): A coil spring of copper has more tensile strength than a steel spring of same dimensions.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false but (R) is true
  5. Answer is: (A) is true but (R) is false

Q5. . From Ampere’s circuital law for a long straight wire of circular cross-section carrying a
steady current, the variation of magnetic field in the inside and outside region of the wire is

  1. Uniform and remains constant for both the regions.
  2. A linearly increasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then linearly decreasing for the outside region.
  3. A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1 r dependence for the outside region.
  4. A linearly decreasing function of distance upto the boundary of the wire and then a linearly increasing one for the outside region.
  5. Answer is : A linearly increasing function of distance r upto the boundary of the wire and then decreasing one with 1 r dependence for the outside region.

Q6. The area of a rectangular field (in m2) of length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding off
the value for correct significant digits is

  1. 138 × 101
  2. 1382
  3. 5
  4. 14 × 102
  5. Answer is : 14 × 102

Q7. Two pendulums of length 121 cm and 100 cm start vibrating in phase. At some instant, the two are at their mean position in the same phase. The minimum number of vibrations of the
shorter pendulum after which the two are again in phase at the mean position is:

  1. 11
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 8
  5. Answer is: 11

Q8. Plane angle and solid angle have

  1. Units but no dimensions
  2. Dimensions but no units
  3. No units and no dimensions
  4. Both units and dimensions
  5. Answer is : Units but no dimensions

Q9. . A body of mass 60 g experiences a gravitational force of 3.0 N, when placed at a particular point. The magnitude of the gravitational field intensity at that point is

  1. 0.05 N/kg
  2. 50 N/kg
  3. 20 N/kg
  4. 180 N/kg
  5.   Answer is: 50 N/kg

Q10. A spherical ball is dropped in a long column of a highly viscous liquid. The curve in the
graph shown, which represents the speed of the ball (v) as a function of time (t) is

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. Answer is: B

Q11. The ratio of the distances travelled by a freely falling body in the 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th
second

  1. 1 : 2 : 3 : 4
  2. 1 : 4 : 9 : 16
  3. 1 : 3 : 5 : 7
  4. 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
  5. Answer is: 1 : 3 : 5 : 7

Q12.


In the given circuits (a), (b) and (c), the potential drop across the two p-n junctions are equal in

  1. Circuit (a) only
  2. Circuit (b) only
  3. Circuit (c) only
  4. Both circuits (a) and (c) 
  5. Answer is: Both circuits (a) and (c)

Chemistry Questions for the NEET Exam

Q13. The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is

  1. Enzymes are biocatalysts.
  2. Like chemical catalysts enzymes reduce the activation energy of bio processes.
  3. Enzymes are polysaccharides.
  4. Enzymes are very specific for a particular reaction and substrate.
  5. Answer is: Enzymes are polysaccharides.

Q14. Gadolinium has a low value of third ionisation enthalpy because of

  1. small size
  2. high exchange enthalpy
  3. high electronegativity
  4. high basic character
  5. Answer is : high exchange enthalpy

Q15. Which of the following statement is not correct about diborane?

  1. There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds.
  2. The four terminal B-H bonds are two centre two electron bonds.
  3. The four terminal Hydrogen atoms and the two Boron atoms lie in one plane.
  4. Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised. 
  5. Answer is: Both the Boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.

Q16. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
(a) Li (i) absorbent for carbon dioxide
(b) Na (ii) electrochemical cells
(c) KOH (iii) coolant in fast breeder reactors
(d) Cs (iv) photoelectric cell

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. (a) – (iv), (b) – (i), (c) – (iii), (d) – (ii)
  2. (a) – (iii), (b) – (iv), (c) – (ii), (d) – (i)
  3. (a) – (i), (b) – (iii), (c) – (iv), (d) – (ii)
  4. (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv) 
  5. Answer is : (a) – (ii), (b) – (iii), (c) – (i), (d) – (iv)

Q17. What mass of 95% pure CaCO3 will be required to neutralise 50 mL of 0.5 M HCl solution according to the following reaction?

CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(aq) + CO2(g) + 2H2O(l)
[Calculate upto second place of decimal point]

  1. 1.25 g
  2. 1.32 g
  3. 3.65 g
  4. 9.50 g
  5. Answer is: 1.32 g

Q18. If radius of second Bohr orbit of the He+ ion is 105.8 pm, what is the radius of third Bohr
orbit of Li2+ ion?

  1. 158.7 pm
  2. 15.87 pm
  3. 1.587 pm
  4. 158.7 Å
  5. Answer is: 158.7 pm

Q19. The pollution due to oxides of sulphur gets enhanced due to the presence of:

(a) particulate matter

(b) ozone

(c) hydrocarbons

(d) hydrogen peroxide
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. (a), (d) only
  2. (a), (b), (d) only
  3. (b), (c), (d) only
  4. (a), (c), (d) only 
  5. Answer is : (a), (b), (d) only

Q20. In the neutral or faintly alkaline medium, KMnO4 oxidises iodide into iodate. The change
in oxidation state of manganese in this reaction is from

  1. +7 to +4
  2. +6 to +4
  3. +7 to +3
  4. +6 to +5
  5. Answer is : +7 to +4

Q21. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is

  1. 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol
  2. 6-bromo-2-chloro-4-methythexan-4-ol
  3. 1-bromo-4-methyl-5-chlorohexan-3-ol
  4. 6-bromo-4-methyl-2-chlorohexan-4-ol
  5. Answer is: 1-bromo-5-chloro-4-methylhexan-3-ol

Q22.  Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): ICI is more reactive than I2.

Reason (R): I-CI bond is weaker than I-I bond.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
  5. Answer is: Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Q23. The IUPAC name of an element with atomic number 119 is

  1. ununennium
  2. unnilennium
  3. unununnium
  4. ununoctium
  5. Answer is: ununennium

Q24.  In one molal solution that contains 0.5 mole of a solute, there is

  1. 500 mL of solvent
  2. 500 g of solvent
  3. 100 mL of solvent
  4. 1000 g of solvent
  5. Answer is:  500 g of solvent (2)

Botany Questions for NEET Mock Test

Q25. Which one of the following is not true regarding the release of energy during ATP synthesis
through chemiosmosis? It involves:

  1. Breakdown of proton gradient
  2. Breakdown of electron gradient
  3. Movement of protons across the membrane to the stroma
  4. Reduction of NADP to NADPH2 on the stroma side of the membrane
  5. Answer is: Breakdown of electron gradient

Q26. Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

  1. Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells
  2. The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
  3. The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
  4. Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement
  5. Answer is: The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming

Q27.  Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification.

Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
  4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
  5. Answer is: Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Q28. . Exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of :

  1. Cutin
  2. Cellulose
  3. Chitin
  4. Glucosamine
  5. Answer is: Chitin

Q29. The flowers are Zygomorphic in:

(a) Mustard

(b) Gulmohar

(c) Cassia

(d) Datura

(e) Chilly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (a), (b), (c) Only
  2. (b), (c) Only
  3. (d), (e) Only
  4. (c), (d), (e) Only
  5. Answer is : (b), (c) Only

30. Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :

  1. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
  2. Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
  3. Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinate
  4. Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
  5. Answer is: Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects

Q31. Which part of the fruit, labelled in the given figure makes it a false fruit?

  1. A → Mesocarp
  2. B → Endocarp
  3. C → Thalamus
  4. D → Seed
  5. Answer is : C → Thalamus     

Q32. Identify the correct set of statements :

(a) The leaflets are modified into pointed hard thorns in Citrus and Bougainvillea

(b) Axillary buds form slender and spirally coiled tendrils in cucumber and pumpkin

(c) Stem is flattened and fleshy in Opuntia and modified to perform the function of leaves

(d) Rhizophora shows vertically upward growing roots that help to get oxygen for respiration

(e) Subaerially growing stems in grasses and strawberry help in vegetative propagation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. (b) and (c) Only
  2. (a) and (d) Only
  3. (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only
  4. (a), (b), (d) and (e) Only
  5. Answer is : (b), (c), (d) and (e) Only

Q33. Hydrocolloid carrageen is obtained from:

  1. Chlorophyceae and Phaeophyceae
  2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
  3. Rhodophyceae only
  4. Phaeophyceae only
  5. Answer is :  Rhodophyceae only

Q34. Which one of the following never occurs during mitotic cell division?

  1. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes
  2. Movement of centrioles towards opposite poles
  3. Pairing of homologous chromosomes
  4. Coiling and condensation of the chromatids
  5. Answer is : Pairing of homologous chromosomes

Q35. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of :

  1. Genetic mapping
  2. DNA finger printing
  3. Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing
  4. Translation         
  5. Answer is : Both genetic mapping and DNA finger printing

Q36. Read the following statements and choose the set of correct statements :

(a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin

(b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active

(c) Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome

(d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine

(e) A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. (b), (d), (e) Only
  2. (a), (c), (d) Only
  3. (b), (e) Only
  4. (a), (c), (e) Only
  5. Answer is : (a), (c), (d) Only

Zoology Questions

Q37. In which of the following animals, digestive tract has additional chambers like crop and
gizzard?

  1. Corvus, Columba, Chameleon
  2. Bufo, Balaenoptera, Bangarus
  3. Catla, Columba, Crocodilus
  4. Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus 
  5. Answer is : Pavo, Psittacula, Corvus

Q38. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies.

Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  5. Answer is: Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Q39. Which of the following statements are true for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for Oogenesis?

(a) It results in the formation of haploid gametes

(b) Differentiation of gamete occurs after the completion of meiosis

(c) Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically dividing stem cell population

(d) It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary

(e) It is initiated at puberty
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. (c) and (e) only
  2. (b) and (c) only
  3. (b), (d) and (e) only
  4. (b), (c) and (e) only
  5. Answer is: (b), (c) and (e) only

Q40. Which of the following is not a connective tissue?

  1. Blood
  2. Adipose tissue
  3. Cartilage
  4. Neuroglia 
  5. Answer is: Neuroglia

Q41. Identify the microorganism which is responsible for the production of an
immunosuppressive molecule cyclosporin A :

  1. Trichoderma polysporum
  2. Clostridium butylicum
  3. Aspergillus niger
  4. Streptococcus cerevisiae
  5. Answer is: Trichoderma polysporum

Q42. Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

  1. RER has ribosomes attached to ER
  2. SER is devoid of ribosomes
  3. In prokaryotes only RER are present
  4. SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
  5. Answer is: In prokaryotes only RER are present

Q43. Natural selection where more individuals acquire specific character value other than the
mean character value, leads to

  1. Stabilising change
  2. Directional change
  3. Disruptive change
  4. Random change
  5. Answer is: Directional change

Q44. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals or higher proteins and healthier
fats is called :

  1. Bio-magnification
  2. Bio-remediation
  3. Bio-fortification
  4. Bio-accumulation
  5. Answer is: Bio-fortification

Q45. In gene therapy of Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency, the patient requires periodic
infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes because :

  1. Retroviral vector is introduced into these lymphocytes.
  2. Gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at embryonic stages.
  3. Lymphocytes from patient’s blood are grown in culture, outside the body.
  4. Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells. 
  5. Answer is: Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not immortal cells.

Q46.  If a colour blind female marries a man whose mother was also colour blind, what are the
chances of her progeny having colour blindness?

  1. 25%
  2. 50%
  3. 75%
  4. 100% 
  5. Answer is: 100%

Q47.  Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?

(a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide

(b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.

(c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.

(d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.

(e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. (a), (b) and (d) only
  2. (b) only
  3. (c) and (d) only
  4. (c), (d) and (e) only
  5. Answer is: (b) only

Q48.  Which of the following statements is not true?

  1. Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
  2. Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
  3. Homology indicates common ancestry
  4. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs 
  5. Answer is : Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs

Q49.  Given below are two statements:

Statements I : In a scrubber the exhaust from the thermal plant is passed through the electric wires to charge the dust particles.

Statement II : Particulate matter (PM 2.5) cannot be removed by scrubber but can be removed by an electrostatic precipitator.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  5. Answer is: Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q50. The recombination frequency between the genes a & c is 5%, b & c is 15%, b & d is 9%, a & b is 20%, c & d is 24% and a & d is 29%. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear
chromosome?

  1. a, d, b, c
  2. d, b, a, c
  3. a, b, c, d
  4. a, c, b, d 
  5. Answer is: a, c, b, d

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